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On this question, I flagged the first two comments as obsolete.

  • The first one, because it asks a question that the asker answered in the second comment.

  • The second one, because it is the answer of the question in the first comment that was then added in the initial question.

But the flags were declined. Why?

Is there a reason to decline these obsolete flags? Do we need to keep these comments?

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I declined them because they were not (and still are not) obsolete. We still need more information so the first comment is still very valid and not obsolete. The question is still unanswered because we do not have enough information to answer. While the second comment was in response to the first, it was not obsolete since it's useful and honestly, does not give us useful information so if anything it is "too chatty" rather than obsolete. Flags will be declined in general if the wrong reason is used.

This question is more than a year old at this point and a better to close it as unclear then try to clean it up as there's not much we can do without the OP.

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    So maybe my understanding of "obsolete" is wrong? I thought it meant that a comment is outdated (even it was useful in the past). Since it has been added in the initial question, the information is doubled so I estimated the comment was not useful anymore hence "obsolete". – Bebs Mar 16 '17 at 15:24
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    @Bebs you may be able to say the second comment is obsolete since you Incorporated it into the question, but the first one is definitely not obsolete. I aired with not obsolete because of the state of the question which we still needed info and the comment was not very helpful, but showed the OP could communicate with us. Just because something can be flagged does not mean that following through with the flag will be the best for the current situation. – Dom Mar 16 '17 at 15:29

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